1. B claims the sale of the freezer to C was conversion of his property. Is he right?
2. A argues that even if conversion is established, B is not entitled to damages because B has been offered a replacement freezer. Is A right?
3. If A had not resold the freezer but, having agreed to accept payment within 30 days of delivery, then demanded payment before making delivery, would this amount to conversion of B's property?
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